115:414 Experimental Biochemistry, spring 1999 name___________________
A. Multiple choice. Circle the letter of the correct
answer. Do questions C7-15 or L7-15, depending on whether you
worked with carotenoids or lipids (not
both). Question 6 can be answered
by everyone. Each question counts 2
points, toward a total of 60 for this part of the examination.
1. An aldohexose contains how many
asymmetric C atoms?
a. one b. two c. four d.
five
2. An aldohexose could have how many
conformations in solution (as might be shown by silylation and gas
chromatography):
a. one b. two c. four d. five
3. Kinetic control is shown in the
specificity of the
a. orcinol method. b.
ferricyanide method c. indole method d. glucose oxidase method
4. The compound actually measured in
the ferricyanide method for reducing sugars is
a. Fe(CN)63- b. Fe(CN)64- c. acid lactone d. H2O2
5. What method would be best for
determination of hydrolysis of maltose?
a. phenol- H2SO4 b.
Nelson-Somogyi c. ferricyanide d. glucose oxidase
6. A saponifiable lipid has what
linkage?
a. RCOOR' b. ROPO2OCH2CH2N∫ c.
RCHCHR' d.RCH2OR’
L7. Plant lipids never contain
a. saturated fatty acids b. cholesterol c. glycolipids d.
phospholipids
L8. The method for lipid extraction
initially extracts all soluble cell components into one phase. To get two phases, with the lipids in one,
you then add
a. CH3OH b.
CHCl3 c.
H2O d.
CHCl3 and H2O
L9. Which component will have lowest
Rf in thin layer chromatography of neutral lipids?
a. cholesterol b.
free fatty acid c.
monoacylglycerol d. phosphatidylcholine
L10. Phospholipids are isolated from
total lipids by
a. thin layer chromatography. b.
acetone precipitation.
c. extraction into chloroform. d.
extraction into methanol.
L11. Dragendorff's reagent reacts with
a. quarternary ammonium groups. b. primary amino
groups.
c. carbohydrates. d.
dragons.
L12. Silver ion chromatography
separates fatty acid methyl esters by
a. the number of silver ions associated with ester groups.
b. the number of silver ions associated
with double bonds.
c. the conformation of the fatty acids in presence of silver ions.
d. the adsorption of double-bond-containing fatty acid esters on precipitated
silver.
L13. In analysis of fatty acid
methyl esters by gas chromatography, a straight line should be obtained by
plotting
a. retention time vs. number of C atoms. b.
retention time vs. log number of C atoms.
c. log time vs. number of C atoms. d. log retention
time vs. log. no. of C atoms.
C7. The most important structural
feature for the absorption spectrum of a carotenoid is
a. the number of hydroxyl or keto groups.
b. the number of double bonds.
c. the number of in-plane conjugated
double bonds.
d. the presence or absence of epoxide groups.
C8. We treated diethyl ether with
FeSO4 before use as a solvent for carotenoids because of
a. its peroxide content. b. its flammability. c. its volatility d. its anaesthetic effects
C9. The "epoxide shift" in
the spectrum of a carotenoid on exposure to acid represents
a. the hydrolysis of a 5,6-epoxide group.
b. the isomerization of a 5,6-epoxide to
a 5,8-epoxide.
c. the isomerization of a 5,8-epoxide to a 5,6-epoxide.
d. the oxidation of the carotenoid, introducing a 5,6-epoxide group.
C10. How do you recover carotenoids
from 90% methanol?
a. Evaporate off the solvent. b.
Add water to get two phases.
c. Extract with pet. ether. d. Extract with diethyl ether.
C11. Mono- and dihydroxycarotenoids
may best be distinguished by
a. phase separation b.
mobility in thin layer chromatography.
c. HCl addition to ethanol solution. d.
absorption spectroscopy.
C12. The adsorbent we used for
column chromatography of carotenoids was
a. alumina. b.
cellulose. c. magnesium oxide/Celite d. sucrose
C13. The last carotenoid to elute
from our hplc column would be
a. b-carotene. b. b-cryptoxanthin. c.
violaxanthin. d.
auroxanthin.
14. What is the function of
guanidinium thiocyanate in RNA extraction?
a. buffering the extraction solution. b.
dissolving the RNA.
c. denaturing the RNA. d. denaturing the RNAses.
15. What is the function of glyoxal
in 'northern' gels?
a. denaturing the RNA. b. denaturing the RNAses.
c. modifying the agarose. d.
visualizing the RNA.
16. Why are 'northern' gels called
by that name?
a. After a man named Northern, who first used them.
b. Because they were developed in a lab in Edinburgh, Scotland.
c. Because they are run on ice.
d. By analogy with Southern gels.
17. What kind of RNA are the most
scientists interested in?
a. ribosomal RNA. b. transfer
RNA. c. messenger RNA. d. small nuclear RNA.
18. What is removed from
precipitated RNA by 'washing' with 75% ethanol?
a. Na acetate. b.
phenol. c. guanidinium
thiocyanate d. all of the above.
19. Plasmid DNA is normally in what
form?
a. superhelical b. relaxed c. linear d. single-stranded
20. DNA is determined specifically
(distinguished from RNA) by
a. UV spectroscopy. b.
fluorescence of bound ethidium bromide.
c. fluorescence of bound DAPI. d. the orcinol
reaction.
21. Only one of the following would
be a site for restriction digestion of DNA:
a. CGGTTA b. AGGCCA c. ACTTCA d. CAATTG
22. At which step is chromosomal DNA
separated from plasmid DNA?
a. hydrolysis in SDS-NaOH b.
precipitation with NH4+ acetate
c. precipitation with isopropanol d.
'washing' the precipitate with 75% EtOH
23. What is the function of
incubation of the agarose gel in 0.5 M NaOH - 1.5 M NaCl after electrophoresis?
a. loosening up the gel for easier transfer of DNA b. making
the DNA single-stranded
c. partially hydrolyzing the DNA for easier transfer d. relaxing supercoiled DNA
24. Why is the blot washed in
0.1xSSC - 1% SDS after hybridization?
a. To remove excess probe adsorbed to the membrane.
b. To remove excess probe weakly
hybridized to slightly homologous DNA.
c. To remove prehybridization
solution components from the membrane.
d. To remove excess salts (20X SSC) from the membrane.
25. For what purpose is the
Maxam-Gilbert sequencing method still useful?
a. sequencing RNA with reverse transcriptase b. sequencing very GC-rich DNA
c. non-radioactive sequencing d.
'footprinting' where proteins bind to
DNA
26. In the Qiaprep procedure, the
DNA is adsorbed onto the Qiaprep spin column after adding 350 µl 3M Na acetate
(total volume 850 µl; 1.23 M Na acetate).
It is eluted in TE (20 mM Tris Cl pH 8.0 - 1 mM EDTA). What sort of separation process do you thing
is being used?
a. hydrophobic adsorption. b. ion
exchange
c. gel filtration d.
DNA phosphates binding to Ca++
27. If sequence you have determined
contains E. coli plasmid sequence
beyond the insert sequence (samples G, I), the most likely explanation is that
a. The organism from which the insert came had incorporated plasposon DNA into
its chromosome.
b. Sequence has been determined right
through the insert to vector in the other side.
c. The wrong primer was used, leading to DNA synthesis complementary to the
vector rather than the insert.
d. The sample was contaminated with plasmid DNA.
28.
Homology between a newly determined sequence and one in GenBank is
considered significant if the e value is less than
a. 32. b.
1. c. 0.01. d.
10-6.
29. Which component of those listed
below is the most essential to the
polymerase chain reaction method of DNA amplification?
a. two primers, binding to the two
strands on either side of the region to be amplified
b. a thermal cycler which rapidly heats and cools the sample
c. a thermophilic DNA polymerase, which withstands 95° temperature for a short
time
d. all of the above
30. Polymerase chain reactions
usually do not produce as much DNA as predicted from the appropriate power of 2
(for 25 cycles, amplification by 225 = 33,554,432). Which of the following explanations is most
likely? (Hint: would we use an
insufficient condition if it was insufficient?)
a. Many molecules synthesized are not
full length, and thus do not bind the other primer and are not replicated
and amplified.
b. The DNA polymerase does not last 25 cycles.
c. Heat transfer to the tubes is inefficient.
d. The incubation time at 52° is not long enough for the primers to bind.
B. Problems. Do C1 or
L1.
C1.
A carotenoid was isolated by chromatography on MgO/Celite (eluted in 5%
acetone in pet. ether) from the 95% CH3OH fraction from phase
separation. In thin layer chromatography
on silica, CH2Cl2:ethyl acetate 4:1 as solvent, its Rf
was 0.75, vs. 0.35 for lutein standard.
Its absorption spectrum in column solvent shows peaks at 421, 445, 474
nm; in carbon disulfide at 479, 512 nm; in ethanol at 424 (shoulder), 445, 477
nm. Addition of HCl to the ethanol
solution caused a shift of the spectrum to peaks at 400, 424, 450 nm. Suggest a likely structure for the
carotenoid. (To give you a reference
point, the peaks for b-carotene in pet. ether are at (425),
449, 475 nm; in CS2, 450, 485, 520 nm; in ethanol, (427), 449, 475
nm.) (10 pts)
b-cryptoxanthin monoepoxide (monohydroxy, by phase separation and tlc Rf;
mono-epoxide, by epoxide shift; b-carotene as parent compound, because lmax is only 4 nm below b-carotene)
L1.
The retention times of fatty acid methyl ester standards in gas-liquid
chromatography are as follows (12:0 means 12 C atoms, no double bonds):
No. of C atoms 12:0 14:0 16:0 18:0 20:0 18:1 18:2 18:3
time, min 0.74 1.38 2.57 4.79 8.91 5.62 6.60 7.76
A fatty acid methyl ester from a
transgenic tobacco plant has retention time 3.55 min. Assuming it has an even number of C atoms and nothing more
complicated than double bonds, calculate the number of carbon atoms and double
bonds. Use graphs below if desired. (10
pts)
Version A: 16:2. They should be able to tell by inspection
that it is a 16 C fatty acid!
Version B: 16:1 The equation for
standards was log t = 0.135(#C) - 1.75; -1.68 for 1 double bond, -1.61 for two,
-1.54 for three.
2. A carbohydrate, 0.6 g, is dissolved in 1 mM HCl (to hasten mutarotation) and diluted with this to a volume of 15.0 ml. The observed optical rotation (in a 2 dm cell) is +4.2°. Calculate [a]d and make a possible identification of the carbohydrate from the table below. (5 pts for [a]d, 1 for identification.)
Sugar [a]d Sugar [a]d Sugar [a]d
d-glucose +52.8° l-fucose@ -75.6° d-trehalose∂ +178°
d-fructose# -92.0° l-rhamnose@ +8.9° d-sucrose∂# +66.5°
d-galactose +81.7° d-sorbitol (glucitol)◊ -2.0° d-maltose∂ +129.0°
l-sorbose# -42.7° l-arabinose* +104.0° d-lactose∂ +52.3°
d-mannose +14.1° d-xylose* +18.6° d-cellobiose∂ +34.5°
*Pentose #Ketose ∂Disaccharide @6-deoxyhexose ◊Sugar alcohol The others are aldohexoses.
Both versions: [a]d
= +52.5°, so it might be either lactose
or glucose.
What further information might you
seek to aid your identification? (2 points)
Therefore, use the glucose oxidase method to tell which!
3.
A DNA insert has been cloned in a vector, original size 2.3 kb. Inserting this piece between the Sac I and Kpn I sites, which are 102 bp apart, has removed this amount from
the vector. The complete plasmid is
digested with Sac I, with Kpn I, with Sac I and Kpn I together,
with Sac I and Hind III, and with Kpn I
and Hind III. These digests are electrophoresed on a gel
together with a "1 kb ladder" marker. Sizes and mobilities of bands in the standard lane are:
Size, kbp 10 8 6 4 3 2 1.6 1.0 0.51
cm moved 2.33 2.66 3.07 3.66 4.08 4.66 4.99 5.66 6.64
Mobilities of bands in the digest
lanes are as follows:
Enzymes Sac I Kpn I Sac I + Kpn I Sac I + Kpn I +
Hind III Hind III
cm moved 2.85 2.85 3.4, 4.53 3.2, 5.08 3.77, 3.94
a.
Calculate the size, in bp or kbp, of the whole plasmid, of the complete
insert, and of the smaller pieces from the double digests with Hind III (2.5 pts each - 10 total). Use one of the graphs below if desired.
The whole plasmid is 7.0 kb; the vector is 2.2 kb, the insert 4.8 kb (Sac I + KpnI digestion); in version A SacI + Hind III gives 5.5 + 1.5 kb pieces, KpnI + Hind III gives 3.7 + 3.3 kb pieces, \ the Hind III site is 1.5 kb from the SacI site, into the insert. In version B the site is 1.5 kb from the KpnI site, the pieces are the same size but exchanged between the two double digests.
b. Draw a map of the insert from the
Sac I site to the Kpn I site, showing the location of the Hind III site (indicate the distances
from it to the Sac I and Kpn I sites) (2 pts.)
4. After a 30 cycle PCR
amplification reaction, the DNA synthesized is precipitated with isopropanol
and washed with 75% ethanol to remove unincorporated nucleotides, primer,
enzyme, etc. The DNA pellet is dissolved
in 30 µl TE. Five microliters of this
solution is diluted to 1.0 ml and an absorbance spectrum taken. The A260 is 0.050. E260 = 20 L/mole·cm.
a) What is the DNA concentration in the cuvette? (2 pts)
version A : 0.05/20 = 0.0025 mg/ml version B: 0.03/20 = 0.0015 mg/ml
b). What is the DNA concentration in the stock
solution? What is the total amount of
DNA present? (2 pts)
version A :
0.0025 x 200 = 0.5 mg/ml = 0.5
µg/µl, x 30 µl = 15 µg total
version
B: 0.0015 x 200 = 0.3 mg/ml = 0.3 µg/µl, x 30 µl = 9 µg total
c) What was the minimum amount of DNA template present at the beginning of the reaction? (If you don't remember how to calculate 230,
multiply the log of 2 by 30, take the antilog.) (2 pts)
230 = 1,073,741,824. Version A:
divide 15 x 10-6 g
by this = 1.4 x 10-14 g
Version B:
divide 9 x 10-6 g
by this = 8.4 x 10-15 g
d) How many moles was this? (2 pts)
If the DNA was 1 kb = 1000 base
pairs long, x x 2 = 6 x 105 g/mole
e) How many molecules was this?
(Avogadro's number: 6.023 x 1023 molecules/mole)
Version A: 1.4
x 10-14g ∏ 6 x 105 g/mole = 2.33 x 10-20 moles; x 6.023 x 1023
molecules/mole =
14,053 molecules
Version B:
8.4 x 10-15g
∏ 6 x 105 g/mole = 1.4 x 20-20 moles; x
x 6.023 x 1023 molecules/mole =
8,432 molecules